Tax loss harvesting is all the rage in a down stock market. Did you know that it can create a mystery worthy of the Hardy Boys? Read on to find out how tax basis can disappear because of tax loss harvesting and the wash sale rule.
Tax Loss Harvesting
I’ve previously written about tax loss harvesting. The idea is to sell a stock, bond, mutual fund, ETF, or other asset at a loss and report that loss on a tax return. That loss can offset other capital gains, and after having done that, it can offset ordinary income (W-2 income, interest income, etc.) up to $3,000 per year. Unused capital losses can be carried forward to subsequent tax returns indefinitely.
Tax loss harvesting is a nice tactic and in the right circumstances can be beneficial. That said, tax loss harvesting should not be a primary driver of one’s investment portfolio allocation.
The Wash Sale Rule
The opportunity presented by tax loss harvesting has a major hurdle: the wash sale rule. Any acquisition of the same asset or a “substantially identical” asset 30 days before or 30 days after the sale at a loss denies the loss on the tax return. This is a very logical rule, considering the potential for abuse. Here’s an example:
Example 1: Sal owns 30 shares of Acme Corporation stock. He purchased it for $200 per share, and it is now worth $140 per share. Without the wash sale rule, Sal could sell all 30 shares for $140 on December 1st (triggering a $1,800 loss on his tax return) and then purchase 30 shares of Acme Corporation on December 2nd for its current value and have very little change in his economic position.
Seen through the lens of Sal’s example, the wash sale rule makes sense. Why should Sal get to claim a loss on 30 shares of Acme stock he owns at year-end?
However, the wash sale rule can be implicated in less clear cut situations. Here’s one example:
Example 2: Cate owns 500 shares of IBM stock* in her taxable brokerage account. She purchased each share for $150 per share. On July 6, 2022, she sold 300 shares for $140 per share, realizing a $3,000 capital loss (300 times $10 loss per share). On July 29, 2022, IBM paid a dividend of $3 per share ($600 total on Cate’s remaining 200 shares), which Cate automatically reinvested in IBM stock, now valued again at $150 per share.
In Cate’s case, the dividend reinvestment purchased 4 shares of IBM stock within the 61-day wash sale window. The taxable loss on 4 shares of the 300 sold ($40 total) is disallowed by the wash sale rule, and Cate will only be able to claim a taxable loss of $2,960 on the July 6th sale.
* All values used in this blog post are hypothetical for purposes of the example. I did not look up IBM’s actual stock prices on these dates. The IBM dividend is also made up for the sake of the example.
One interesting tidbit about the wash sale rule in today’s environment: as the rule only applies to “securities” it does not apply to cryptocurrencies. Thus, an investor can sell a cryptocurrency at a loss on one day and repurchase it a day later and claim the entire loss on his or her tax return. There are proposals to do away with this treatment and subject cryptocurrencies to the wash sale rule.
Retirement Accounts and the Wash Sale Rule
Let’s change Cate’s example just a bit, by having the repurchase occurring inside a Roth IRA.
Example 3: Cate owns 300 shares of IBM stock in her taxable brokerage account. She purchased each share for $150 per share. On July 6, 2022, she sold all 300 shares for $140 per share, realizing a $3,000 capital loss (300 times $10 loss per share). Separately, Cate owns 200 shares of IBM in her Roth IRA. On July 29, 2022, IBM paid a dividend of $3 per share ($600 total on Cate’s remaining 200 shares), which Cate’s Roth IRA automatically reinvested in IBM stock, now valued again at $150 per share.
What result? The IRS has issued a Revenue Ruling, Rev. Rul. 2008-5, ruling that if the repurchase occurs inside the taxpayer’s Roth IRA or traditional IRA, the wash sale rule applies. Cate would suffer the exact same $40 wash sale rule loss disallowance.
Note that a Revenue Ruling is not binding on taxpayers and the courts. Of course, a judge or appellate court may agree with the conclusion the IRS reaches in a Revenue Ruling, but they are not obligated to do so based solely on the IRS having issued the ruling. Rev. Rul. 2008-5 cites two 1930s court cases as authority for the conclusion reached in the ruling. Those cases involve a taxpayer using a controlled corporation to attempt to get around the wash sale rule, and the courts ruled that the wash sale rule applied regardless.
In my research, I have not found any published court cases which have weighed in on Rev. Rul. 2008-5. The wash sale rule, as found in Section 1091, does not explicitly deem a retirement account and its owner to be the same person. Thus, there is at least some (perhaps quite small) risk to the IRS that a court would deem the primary result in Rev. Rul. 2008-5 to be too much of a stretch. That said, I certainly would not recommend taking a position counter to the ruling. I would struggle to advise that the wash sale rule does not apply if the security is repurchased in a retirement account.
Disappearing Basis?
The wash sale rule disallows a loss, but it does not disallow basis. Section 1091(d) of the Internal Revenue Code and Treasury Regulation Section 1.1091-2 provide for a tax basis adjustment so that taxpayers are ultimately made whole after the application of the wash sale rule. Broadly speaking, the tax rules allow the disallowed loss to be added to the basis of the repurchased asset. In my Example 2 above, the basis of the 4 shares Cate repurchased is their historic cost ($150 per share) increased by the $10 per share disallowed loss. Thus, if Cate later sells those 4 shares, she will have a basis of $160 in those shares for purposes of determining gain or loss.
In theory, the wash sale rule is simply a timing rule. It is inappropriate to allow a taxpayer to currently claim a loss when they wind up holding the exact same stock or securities. But, over time the tax basis rules should work out such that ultimately the correct amount is taxed to the taxpayer.
What about basis adjustments when the wash sale occurs because of a repurchase made inside a retirement account? Rev. Rul. 2008-5 states that there is no basis adjustment with respect to a retirement account. There is an argument that Section 1091(d) should create Pro-Rata Rule basis in a traditional IRA. However, considering how highly technical and structured IRAs are, that is not a very likely outcome were the issue ever to be litigated. Further, that outcome would (quite oddly) give the taxpayer a different basis result based on whether they repurchased in a Roth retirement account or a traditional retirement account.
So what becomes of the basis? Does it just disappear? If the basis vanishes, the taxpayer obtains a worse wash sale result by repurchasing inside a retirement account. It seems odd that a taxpayer would receive a worse outcome for doing a repurchase through a retirement account instead of through a taxable brokerage account.
Solving the Disappearing Basis Mystery
I have a theory that might solve the mystery.
To get us started, consider that neither the Revenue Ruling nor Example 3 above discuss the “replacement property” in the taxable brokerage account. Here are two examples to ponder.
Example 4: Tim owns 1,000 shares of Domestic Equity Mutual Fund A (worth $50,000) he purchased for $60,000. It is held in a taxable brokerage account. On December 1, 2022, he sold Domestic Equity Mutual Fund A for $50,000 cash. He used the cash received to fund living expenses (food, clothing, heating bills, travel expenses, insurance, gasoline, etc.). On December 2, 2022, Tim purchased 1,000 shares of Domestic Equity Mutual Fund A in his Roth IRA.
Example 5: Tim owns 1,000 shares of Domestic Equity Mutual Fund A (worth $50,000) he purchased for $60,000. It is held in a taxable brokerage account. On December 1, 2022, he exchanged all of his Domestic Equity Mutual Fund A for $50,000 worth of International Equity Mutual Fund B. On December 2, 2022, Tim purchased 1,000 shares of Domestic Equity Mutual Fund A in his Roth IRA.
The wash sale rule disallows the $10,000 capital loss in both Example 4 and Example 5. But does Tim lose $10,000 of basis permanently? If he does, it’s an odd result considering that had he repurchased Domestic Equity Mutual Fund A in a taxable brokerage account (instead of in a retirement account), he would not lose that basis.
I believe that there is a reasonable possibility that a court would rule that the $10,000 of basis shifts to the replacement property received in the wash sale. In Example 4, that conclusion leads Tim to no better position: he uses the cash for personal expenses, and there is no tax deduction for personal expenses. Further, I can’t imagine a court would give a step up in basis in Tim’s functional currency, the U.S. dollar.
As applied to Example 5, where there has been a reinvestment in a taxable brokerage account, the equities of the situation might encourage some judges to find that Tim’s International Equity Mutual Fund B basis at a later sale is $60,000, not $50,000.
Tim originally had $60,000 of basis in the system. While it is appropriate for a current loss to be disallowed, it is not appropriate for Tim’s basis in the system to be diminished in a situation where his overall taxable investment has not changed.
It’s one thing for the wash sale rule to operate to deny Tim a current loss deduction. It’s entirely another thing to interpret the wash sale rule to both deny current loss recognition and to permanently deny Tim $10,000 of basis. In its enactments of the wash sale rule and of the basis rules, Congress never manifested an intention for this one-two punch to bite Tim twice. If Tim sells the International Equity Mutual Fund B shares and recovers only $50,000 of basis he is inappropriately overtaxed.
I believe some judges might determine that the IRS cannot have its cake (wash sale loss disallowance) and eat it too (permanent basis reduction). Basis exists to appropriately tax property transactions. Allowing Tim only $50,000 of future basis recovery over-taxes a later sale of his International Equity Mutual Fund B shares. While the IRS has a good argument that the wash sale rule disallowance should be spread to retirement account repurchases, it does not have a good argument that the overall result should be worsened if the repurchase occurs inside a retirement account.
Further, there is at least some risk to the IRS that a court would consider them to have reached just a bit by applying the wash sale rule to a repurchase inside a retirement account. The court might determine that what is good for the goose is good for the gander: if the IRS can reach a bit to apply the wash sale rule, the taxpayer can reach a bit to adjust the basis of the newly acquired securities in the taxable account.
The policies behind the rules point in the direction of allowing a taxpayer to add the disallowed loss to the basis of any replacement capital asset obtained through a direct exchange or a close-in-time use of the sales proceeds.
My proposed resolution has basis behave as it does in more familiar contexts. Say you received $50 from your grandmother when you were 12 years old. If you spent it on movie tickets and going bowling, the basis vanished for tax purposes. What if, instead, you purchased one share of stock of a publicly traded company for that $50? You’d get $50 of basis in that share of stock. Same with your first job: if you spend your first $1,000 W-2 paycheck on rent and groceries, tax basis disappears. But if you take that $1,000 and buy shares of ABC Mutual Fund in a taxable brokerage account, the basis stays attached to the mutual fund shares. Basis surviving when assets are reinvested in capital assets is a logical outcome.
Conclusion
Does anyone know for sure what happens to basis when the wash sale rule is tripped due to a repurchase in a retirement account? I believe it is still an unsolved mystery.
Does basis vanish into the night? Or can it be preserved if the taxpayer reinvests in a capital asset in a brokerage account, as I have suggested?
Remember, the text of the Revenue Ruling does not affirmatively state that the basis simply disappears. Rather, all it says is that the basis does not get added to the taxpayer’s basis in the retirement account. To my mind, that’s a clue. It is not a definitive answer to the mystery.
Now that we are 14 years removed from the issuance of Rev. Rul. 2008-5, it might be time for the IRS and Treasury Department to revisit the basis issue. The government could issue a regulation or another Revenue Ruling addressing the basis result in a situation similar to my Example 5.
Of course, for taxpayers, this mystery is best avoided if possible. Repurchases should either (i) occur outside of the 61-day wash sale window or (ii) be of securities that are not the same or substantially identical to the sold securities.
I’ve also posted a video on YouTube with thoughts on this topic.
Lastly, the above is simply my technical analysis. It is not legal advice applicable to any one particular taxpayer or real life situation.
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This post is for entertainment and educational purposes only. It does not constitute accounting, financial, legal, or tax advice. Please consult with your advisor(s) regarding your personal accounting, financial, legal, and tax matters. Please also refer to the Disclaimer & Warning section found here.
